Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
I was conflating two different things in my head, the 1588 battle of gravelines where the Spanish armada was heavily damaged by British fire ships and storms and British naval power in the age of steam. This was a bit before the age of steam, which was more around 1770, 200 years later. Britain did adapt to the age of steam a lot better than the Spaniards did but I was incorrect.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanish_Armada