Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
I don’t think there is a great medieval analogy because European feudalism was formed from a decaying Empire. Medieval China is a good example of what a culture in that time period looks like that has a more or less unified polity.
Absolutism surely is a response to growing capitalist class, and in the sense it is like fascism because its goal is to “preserve the old order by disciplining the laboring class.” But I would call it an evolution of feudalism rather than feudalism in decay, because it’s a more efficient form of government.