Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
Was the development of absolutism a response to the rising capitalist class and/or republicanism? My knowledge of late medieval history is really not as strong as it could be so I’m interested to hear what people think
I think it really depends on your perspective. Because fascism is another way of describing the Imperial boomerang, so from a international perspective, there’s not really a difference between capitalism in decay and capitalism in general, it’s just that from a Imperial core perspective, you don’t see the fascism that upholds the Empire until the boomerang comes back around to hit you. Because there’s nothing left in the periphery to plunder. You have to plunder the core